answer 1
No, it follows the 1769 version of the KJV. No commentary after the 1800s follows the 1611 KJV version.
answered 1 year, 11 months ago

by
Miklos
Arizona
+2points
2out of 2found this answer helpful.
answer 2
Yes
answered 2 years, 3 months ago

by
Jean-Richard Norzielus
Cergy (France)
0points
0out of 0found this answer helpful.
answer 3
While it follows along with the KJV nicely, I would have to say, No. For example in Gen. 5: 1-2, "This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of Elohim made he him; male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created."
The use of Elohim in this verse is rendered simply "God" in the KJV. I can't find specifically what translation is used, but it could be the ASV of 1901. Mention is made of the Revised Greek text in the commentary, but that is all I can find for now. If you are curious about 1 John 5:7, the commentator doesn't really treat it, but mentions the lack of any manuscript evidence prior to the 5th century AD.
answered 2 years, 4 months ago

by
Kelz
NC
0points
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answer 4
These books were first published in the 1800's. They do follow the King James version
answered 2 years, 5 months ago

by
Aaron
Anchorage, Alaska
0points
0out of 0found this answer helpful.
answer 5
The publisher does not indicate which King James Version this commentary is based on.
answered 2 years, 5 months ago

by
CustomerService
+3points
3out of 3found this answer helpful.